John Dryden (1631-1700)
Neo -Classical Writer
He is a Neo -Classical critic because his influences are Aristotle, Longinus the classical critics.
So neo -calssical scholars, critics are influenced by classical mind. In that sense he is consider as a neo -classical writer or critic.
In his definition through Lisideius he does not say I'm offering a definition, he says I'm offering a description. He also taking influence of Aristotle 's definition of tragedy. He subsequently carrying on the tradition.
Definition of Drama
The definition broken up into three parts.
A just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humours and the changes of fortune to which it is subject, for the delight and instruction of mankind.
Plato had said that poet's merely copy and therefore their works are second hand imitation.
Dryden not bothered by the word Image in his definition. There is a word Just. Just image can also be a very drab kind of image. So onlookers, reader, not be interested in it. He inserts the word Lively also.
Aristotle's definition of tragedy ended with therapeutic word Catharsis. Where as Dryden's definition ended with Delight and Instruction of mankind.
There is realism in the Dryden because he says poets describe the life as it is. As in the definition Patience and humors this both are not static.
That was realism makes him slightly different from neo -classical critics.
Also Dryden talks about use and avoidance of rhymes ,rhyme verse Vs blank verse, views of Lisideius, Crites ,Eugenius and As a Neander himself on drama.
Crites (Robert Howard) :In favors of Ancients.
Eugenius (Charles Sackville) : Favors the moderns over Ancients.
Neander (Dryden) : Favors modern English plays but does not disparge the Ancients.
Lisideius (Charles Sedley) : Favors French drama over English drama.
It was great experience from learning through the Flipped Learning. We can easily learn from anywhere or as we know that one picture has thousand words in compare to the one word ,so we can learn with enjoying or with enthusiasm.
Thank you......
Thinking Activity :
1- )
Do you any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of Play?
Difference between the definition.
Aristotle's Defination of Tragedy:
“A tragedy is the imitation of an action that is serious and also, as having magnitude, complete in itself; in appropriate and pleasurable language;... in a dramatic rather than narrative form; with incidents arousing pity and fear, wherewith to accomplish a catharsis of these emotions.” And he ended his defination with te word ‘Catharsis’.wereas Drayden gives the definition of the play in a wide per sense.
Dryden’s defination of. Play:
Just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humours, and the changes of fortune to which it is subject, for the delight and instruction of mankind.
According to the definition, drama is an ‘image’ of ‘human nature’, and the image is ‘just’ and ‘lively’. By using the word ‘just’ Dryden seems to imply that literature imitates (and not merely reproduces) human actions. For Dryden, ‘poetic imitation’ is different from an exact, servile copy of reality, for, the imitation is not only ‘just’, it is also ‘lively’.on that base we can see difference between Aristotle’s definition of tragedy and Dryden’s definition of play .
My personal prediction, is about an Ancient literature.
In the case for the ‘Ancient’ is presented by crites .
in the controversy no extreme position and is sensible enough to give the ancient their respect .through his wit and
shrewd analysis, he removes the difficulty which had confused the issue. he makes us see the achievement of the Ancients and the gratitude of the Moderns to them . thus ,he
Present the comparative merits and demerits of each in clearer way.
The superiority of Ancient is established by the very fact that the moderns simply imitate them, and build on the foundations laid by them .the Ancients are the acknowledge models of the modern .
it should be remembered that “Every age has its own genius ,its own inclination for some particular branch of knowledge .thus in the Modern age ,their genius is for the study of natural science as medicine ,anatomy ,astronomy ,and in these studies they have more progress than could be made during Aristotle to the modern similarity.”
3-) Do you think that the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate? English plays are more popular than French plays.
Because there is subplot and mingling mirth always present in the English plays.In the play there is some serious emotion and another plot of comic scene is necessary.
4) What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play?
Dryden the father of English Criticism -called by Dr. Samuel Johnson.
Father in the sense of, one who originates certain things and one who propagates in a particular, sustained manner.
Before Dryden there is Philip Sidney (1554-1586)(An Appology for poetry) in the English tradition. But Philip Sidney 's work was published after his death. He was a renaissance man -his exclusive work was his criticism and he has left very less materials if we compare to Dryden has quite more.
In other sense why he called father, because after Aristotle he gives well -firmed definition of the a play, and he has more critical work. That all things gives the position of father of criticism in English tradition to Dryden.
In other sense why he called father, because after Aristotle he gives well -firmed definition of the a play, and he has more critical work. That all things gives the position of father of criticism in English tradition to Dryden.
Neo -Classical Writer
He is a Neo -Classical critic because his influences are Aristotle, Longinus the classical critics.
So neo -calssical scholars, critics are influenced by classical mind. In that sense he is consider as a neo -classical writer or critic.
In his definition through Lisideius he does not say I'm offering a definition, he says I'm offering a description. He also taking influence of Aristotle 's definition of tragedy. He subsequently carrying on the tradition.
Definition of Drama
The definition broken up into three parts.
A just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humours and the changes of fortune to which it is subject, for the delight and instruction of mankind.
Plato had said that poet's merely copy and therefore their works are second hand imitation.
Dryden not bothered by the word Image in his definition. There is a word Just. Just image can also be a very drab kind of image. So onlookers, reader, not be interested in it. He inserts the word Lively also.
Aristotle's definition of tragedy ended with therapeutic word Catharsis. Where as Dryden's definition ended with Delight and Instruction of mankind.
There is realism in the Dryden because he says poets describe the life as it is. As in the definition Patience and humors this both are not static.
That was realism makes him slightly different from neo -classical critics.
Also Dryden talks about use and avoidance of rhymes ,rhyme verse Vs blank verse, views of Lisideius, Crites ,Eugenius and As a Neander himself on drama.
Crites (Robert Howard) :In favors of Ancients.
Eugenius (Charles Sackville) : Favors the moderns over Ancients.
Neander (Dryden) : Favors modern English plays but does not disparge the Ancients.
Lisideius (Charles Sedley) : Favors French drama over English drama.
It was great experience from learning through the Flipped Learning. We can easily learn from anywhere or as we know that one picture has thousand words in compare to the one word ,so we can learn with enjoying or with enthusiasm.
Thank you......
Thinking Activity :
1- )
Do you any difference between Aristotle's definition of Tragedy and Dryden's definition of Play?
Difference between the definition.
Aristotle's Defination of Tragedy:
“A tragedy is the imitation of an action that is serious and also, as having magnitude, complete in itself; in appropriate and pleasurable language;... in a dramatic rather than narrative form; with incidents arousing pity and fear, wherewith to accomplish a catharsis of these emotions.” And he ended his defination with te word ‘Catharsis’.wereas Drayden gives the definition of the play in a wide per sense.
Dryden’s defination of. Play:
Just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humours, and the changes of fortune to which it is subject, for the delight and instruction of mankind.
According to the definition, drama is an ‘image’ of ‘human nature’, and the image is ‘just’ and ‘lively’. By using the word ‘just’ Dryden seems to imply that literature imitates (and not merely reproduces) human actions. For Dryden, ‘poetic imitation’ is different from an exact, servile copy of reality, for, the imitation is not only ‘just’, it is also ‘lively’.on that base we can see difference between Aristotle’s definition of tragedy and Dryden’s definition of play .
2-) If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern? Please give reasons.
In the case for the ‘Ancient’ is presented by crites .
in the controversy no extreme position and is sensible enough to give the ancient their respect .through his wit and
shrewd analysis, he removes the difficulty which had confused the issue. he makes us see the achievement of the Ancients and the gratitude of the Moderns to them . thus ,he
Present the comparative merits and demerits of each in clearer way.
The superiority of Ancient is established by the very fact that the moderns simply imitate them, and build on the foundations laid by them .the Ancients are the acknowledge models of the modern .
it should be remembered that “Every age has its own genius ,its own inclination for some particular branch of knowledge .thus in the Modern age ,their genius is for the study of natural science as medicine ,anatomy ,astronomy ,and in these studies they have more progress than could be made during Aristotle to the modern similarity.”
3-) Do you think that the arguments presented in favour of the French plays and against English plays are appropriate? English plays are more popular than French plays.
Because there is subplot and mingling mirth always present in the English plays.In the play there is some serious emotion and another plot of comic scene is necessary.
According to me, in play both should be merge poetics and prosaic. Audience comes never in a single form and to maintain each individual’s test better to generalizing of all. If play goes on with one common pattern people will get bored easily.
poetic form is comparatively harder than prosaic in the sense of understanding. So prosaic dialogue is better than poetic dialogue.
poetic form is comparatively harder than prosaic in the sense of understanding. So prosaic dialogue is better than poetic dialogue.
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